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Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support Provider Exam
RC Health Services
Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support Provider Exam
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ACLS Exam is not available for you
Welcome to the Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support written exam!
The AHA has authorized RCHS to store and administer this exam due to the COVID-19 pandemic. You must score an 84% or greater to pass. You may retake the exam if you do not pass. Per American Heart Association Guidelines, you may use your Provider Manual to assist you during this exam. Please do not close this window until exam is complete.
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Terms and Conditions:
The exam you are about to take is copyrighted content from the American Heart Association. RC Health Services has obtained special permission to administer the exam this way through the “Interim Guidance: Virtual Training Options during COVID-19 Outbreak” memo from the American Heart Association Training Network.
This exam is to be kept confidential.
You may not share the content, answers, questions, or any other material to anyone through any means.
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1. A responder is caring for a patient with a history of congestive heart failure. The patient is experiencing shortness of breath, a blood pressure of 68/50 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 190/min. The patient’s lead II ECG is displayed here. Which best characterizes this patient’s rhythm?
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Sinus tachycardia
Perfusing ventricular tachycardia
Unstable supraventricular tachycardia
Stable supraventricular tachycardia
2. EMS providers are treating a patient with suspected stroke. According to the Adult Suspected Stroke Algorithm, which critical action performed by the EMS team will expedite this patient’s care on arrival and reduce the time to treatment?
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Provide prehospital notification
Review the patient’s history
Establish IV access
Treat hypertension
3. For STEMI patients, which best describes the recommended maximum goal time for first medical contact–to–balloon inflation time for percutaneous coronary intervention?
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150 minutes
120 minutes
180 minutes
90 minutes
4. Which best describes the length of time it should take to perform a pulse check during the BLS Assessment?
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5 to 10 seconds
11 to 15 seconds
16 to 20 seconds
1 to 4 seconds
5. You instruct a team member to give 1 mg atropine IV. Which response is an example of closed-loop communication?
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“Are you sure that is what you want given?”
“I’ll draw up 1 mg of atropine.”
“OK.”
“I’ll give it in a few minutes.”
6. What should be the primary focus of the CPR Coach on a resuscitation team?
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To convey positive feedback
To ensure high-quality CPR
To document CPR outcomes
To resolve team arguments
7. Which is the recommended oral dose of aspirin for a patient with a suspected acute coronary syndrome?
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162 to 325 mg
81 mg
40 mg
350 to 650 mg
8. A patient in stable narrow-complex tachycardia with a peripheral IV in place is refractory to the first dose of adenosine. Which dose would you administer next?
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3 mg
40 mg
20 mg
12 mg
9. In addition to clinical assessment, which is the most reliable method to confirm and monitor correct placement of an endotracheal tube?
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Continuous waveform capnography
Chest radiography
Hemoglobin levels
Arterial blood gases
10. How can you increase chest compression fraction during a code?
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Initiate intravenous or intraosseous access during the 2-minute cycle
Interchange the Ventilator and Compressor during a rhythm check
Administer epinephrine during the 2-minute cycle
Charge the defibrillator 15 seconds before conducting a rhythm check
11. Your rescue team arrives to find a 59-year-old man lying on the kitchen floor. You determine that he is unresponsive. Which is the next step in your assessment and management of this patient?
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Check the patient’s breathing and pulse
Check for a medical alert bracelet
Apply the AED
Open the patient’s airway
12. Which of the following signs is a likely indicator of cardiac arrest in an unresponsive patient?
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Cyanosis
Agonal gasps
Slow, weak pulse rate
Irregular, weak pulse rate
13. Which best describes this rhythm?
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Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia
Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia
Supraventricular tachycardia
Ventricular fibrillation
Use this scenario to answer the next 6 questions:
A 45-year-old man had coronary artery stents placed 2 days ago. Today, he is in severe distress and is reporting “crushing” chest discomfort. He is pale, diaphoretic, and cool to the touch. His radial pulse is very weak, blood pressure is 64/40 mm Hg, respiratory rate is 28 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation is 89% on room air. When applied, the cardiac monitor initially showed ventricular tachycardia, which then quickly changed to ventricular fibrillation.
14. On the basis of this patient’s initial presentation, which condition do you suspect led to the cardiac arrest?
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Supraventricular tachycardia with ischemic chest pain
Acute heart failure
Acute ischemic stroke
Acute coronary syndrome
15. In addition to defibrillation, which intervention should be performed immediately?
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Vasoactive medication administration
Chest compressions
Vascular access
Advanced airway insertion
16. Despite 2 defibrillation attempts, the patient remains in ventricular fibrillation. Which drug and dose should you administer first to this patient?
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Epinephrine 1 mg
Lidocaine 1 mg/kg
Atropine 1 mg
Amiodarone 300 mg
17. Despite the drug provided above and continued CPR, the patient remains in ventricular fibrillation. Which other drug should be administered next?
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Magnesium sulfate 1 g
Lidocaine 1 to 1.5 mg/kg
Epinephrine 1 mg
Atropine 1 mg
18. The patient has return of spontaneous circulation and is not able to follow commands. Which post–cardiac arrest care intervention do you choose for this patient?
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Check the glucose level
Extubate
Initiate targeted temperature management
Administer epinephrine
19. Which would you have done first if the patient had not gone into ventricular fibrillation?
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Performed synchronized cardioversion
Given atropine 1 mg
Established IV access
Obtained a 12-lead ECG
20. What is the recommended range from which a temperature should be selected and maintained constantly to achieve targeted temperature management after cardiac arrest?
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29°C to 31°C
32°C to 36°C
26°C to 28°C
35°C to 37°C
21. To properly ventilate a patient with a perfusing rhythm, how often do you squeeze the bag?
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Once every 12 seconds
Once every 6 seconds
Once every 3 seconds
Once every 10 seconds
22. A patient has a witnessed loss of consciousness. The lead II ECG reveals this rhythm. Which is the appropriate treatment?
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Administration of adenosine 6 mg IV push
Administration of epinephrine 1 mg IV push
Defibrillation
Synchronized cardioversion
23. What is an effect of excessive ventilation?
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Increased perfusion pressures
Decreased cardiac output
Decreased intrathoracic pressure
Increased venous return
Use this scenario to answer the next 4 questions:
A 68-year-old woman presents with light-headedness, nausea, and chest discomfort. Your assessment finds her awake and responsive but appearing ill, pale, and grossly diaphoretic. Her radial pulse is weak, thready, and fast. You are unable to obtain a blood pressure. She has no obvious dependent edema, and her neck veins are flat. Her lung sounds are equal, with moderate rales present bilaterally. The cardiac monitor shows the rhythm seen here.
24. On the basis of this patient’s initial assessment, which ACLS algorithm should you follow?
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Acute Coronary Syndromes
Adult Tachycardia With a Pulse
Adult Suspected Stroke
Adult Cardiac Arrest
25. The patient’s pulse oximeter shows a reading of 84% on room air. Which initial action do you take?
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Give oxygen
Perform bag-mask ventilation
Intubate the patient
Check the pulse oximeter probe
26. After your initial assessment of this patient, which intervention should be performed next?
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Immediate defibrillation
Endotracheal intubation
Administration of amiodarone 150 mg IM
Synchronized cardioversion
27. If the patient became apneic and pulseless but the rhythm remained the same, which would take the highest priority?
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Administer amiodarone 300 mg
Administer atropine 0.5 mg
Insert an advanced airway
Perform defibrillation
28. What is the minimum systolic blood pressure one should attempt to achieve with fluid administration or vasoactive agents in a hypotensive post–cardiac arrest patient who achieves return of spontaneous circulation?
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90 mm Hg
75 mm Hg
85 mm Hg
80 mm Hg
29. Which is the primary purpose of a medical emergency team or rapid response team?
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Improving care for patients admitted to critical care units
Improving patient outcomes by identifying and treating early clinical deterioration
Providing online consultation to EMS personnel in the field
Providing diagnostic consultation to emergency department patients
30. Which best describes this rhythm?
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First-degree atrioventricular block
Second-degree atrioventricular block type I
Second-degree atrioventricular block type II
Third-degree atrioventricular block
31. A team member is unable to perform an assigned task because it is beyond the team member’s scope of practice. Which action should the team member take?
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Seek expert advice
Assign it to another team member
Ask for a new task or role
Do it anyway
32. During post–cardiac arrest care, which is the recommended duration of targeted temperature management after reaching the correct temperature range?
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At least 48 hours
At least 36 hours
At least 8 hours
At least 24 hours
33. Which is the recommended next step after a defibrillation attempt?
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Open the patient’s airway
Determine if a carotid pulse is present
Resume CPR, starting with chest compressions
Check the ECG for evidence of a rhythm
34. Which of these tests should be performed for a patient with suspected stroke as early as possible but no more than 20 minutes after hospital arrival?
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Coagulation studies
Cardiac enzymes
12-lead ECG
Noncontrast CT scan of the head
35. Which is an acceptable method of selecting an appropriately sized oropharyngeal airway?
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Estimate by using the formula Weight (kg)/8 + 2
Estimate by using the size of the patient’s finger
Measure from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the mandible
Measure from the thyroid cartilage to the bottom of the earlobe
36. You are evaluating a 58-year-old man with chest discomfort. His blood pressure is 92/50 mm Hg, his heart rate is 92/min, his nonlabored respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute, and his pulse oximetry reading is 97%. Which assessment step is most important now?
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Evaluating the PETCO2 reading
Requesting laboratory testing
Requesting a chest x-ray
Obtaining a 12-lead ECG
37. Three minutes into a cardiac arrest resuscitation attempt, one member of your team inserts an endotracheal tube while another performs chest compressions. Capnography shows a persistent waveform and a PETCO2 of 8 mm Hg. Which is the significance of this finding?
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The patient meets the criteria for termination of efforts
The endotracheal tube is in the esophagus
The team is ventilating the patient too often (hyperventilation)
Chest compressions may not be effective
38. Which type of atrioventricular block best describes this rhythm?
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First-degree
Second-degree type I
Second-degree type II
Third-degree
39. You have completed 2 minutes of CPR. The ECG monitor displays the lead II rhythm shown here, and the patient has no pulse. Another member of your team resumes chest compressions, and an IV is in place. Which do you do next?
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Start a dopamine infusion
Give atropine 0.5 mg
Give epinephrine 1 mg IV
Insert an advanced airway
40. Which best describes an action taken by the Team Leader to avoid inefficiencies during a resuscitation attempt?
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Assign most tasks to the more experienced team members
Perform the most complicated tasks
Clearly delegate tasks
Assign the same tasks to more than one team member
41. Which is the recommended first intravenous dose of amiodarone for a patient with refractory ventricular fibrillation?
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150 mg
250 mg
100 mg
300 mg
42. Which is the maximum interval you should allow for an interruption in chest compressions?
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20 seconds
25 seconds
15 seconds
10 seconds
43. A patient in respiratory distress and with a blood pressure of 70/50 mm Hg presents with the lead II ECG rhythm shown here. Which is the appropriate treatment?
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Administering adenosine 6 mg IV push
Performing synchronized cardioversion
Performing vagal maneuvers
Performing defibrillation
44. You are caring for a patient with a suspected stroke whose symptoms started 2 hours ago. The CT scan was normal, with no signs of hemorrhage. The patient does not have any contraindications to fibrinolytic therapy. Which treatment approach is best for this patient?
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Hold fibrinolytic therapy for 24 hours
Give fibrinolytic therapy as soon as possible and consider endovascular therapy
Wait for the results of the MRI
Order an echocardiogram before fibrinolytic administration
45. Which type of atrioventricular block best describes this rhythm?
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Third-degree atrioventricular block
Second-degree atrioventricular block type I
First-degree atrioventricular block
Second-degree atrioventricular block type II
46. Your patient is in cardiac arrest and has been intubated. To assess CPR quality, which should you do?
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Obtain a 12-lead ECG
Monitor the patient’s PETCO2
Check the patient’s pulse
Obtain a chest x-ray
47. If a team member is about to make a mistake during a resuscitation attempt, which best describes the action that the team leader or other team members should take?
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Conduct a debriefing after the resuscitation attempt
Address the team member immediately
Reassign the team tasks
Remove the team member from the area
48. A patient is being resuscitated in a very noisy environment. A team member thinks he heard an order for 500 mg of amiodarone IV. Which is the best response from the team member?
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“I have an order to give 500 mg of amiodarone IV. Is this correct?”
“Amiodarone 500 mg IV has been given.”
“OK.”
“Are you sure?”
49. You are performing chest compressions during an adult resuscitation attempt. Which rate should you use to perform the compressions?
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More than 120/min
Less than 80/min
100 to 120/min
80 to 90/min
50. Which facility is the most appropriate EMS destination for a patient with sudden cardiac arrest who achieved return of spontaneous circulation in the field?
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Coronary reperfusion–capable medical center
Acute long-term care unit
Comprehensive stroke care unit
Acute rehabilitation care unit
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